NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS
601. As you visit your patient during rounds, you notice a thin child who is shy and not mingling with the group who seemed
to be visitors of the patient. You offered him food but his mother told you not to mind him as he is not eating much while all
of them are eating during that time. As a nurse, what will you do?
a) inform social service desk on suspected case of child neglect
b) ignore incident since the child is under the responsibility of the mother
c) raise the situation to your head nurse and discuss with her what intervention might be done to help the child
602. There is a child you are taking care of at home who has a history of anaphylactic shock from certain foods, the nurse
is feeding him lunch, he looks suddenly confused, breathless and acting different, the nurse has access to emergency
drugs access and the mobile phone, what will she do?
a) She will keep the child awake by talking to him and call 911 for help
b) She will raise the child’s legs and administer Adrenaline and call the emergency services
c) The nurse will keep the child in standing position and try to reassure the child
603. You are about to administer Morphine Sulfate to a paediatric patient. The information written on the controlled drug
book was not clearly written – 15 mg or 0.15 mg. What will you do first?
a. Not administer the drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his
rounds b. Administer 0.15 mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a
paediatric patient
c. Double check the medication label and the information on the controlled drug book; ring the chemist to verify the dosage
d. Ask a senior staff to read the medication label with you
604. Management of moderate malnutrition in children?
a) supplimentary nutrition
b) immediate hospitalization
c) weekly assessment
d) document intake for three days
605. You saw a relative of a client has come with her son, who looks very thin, shy & frightened. You serve them food, but
the mother of that child says "don't give him, he eats too much". You should:
a) Raise your concern with your nurse manager about potential for child abuse & ask for her support
b) Ignore the mother & ask the relative if the child is abused.
c) Ignore the mother's advice & serve food to the child.
d) Ignore the situation as she is the mother & knows better about her child.
606. U just joined in a new hospital. U see a senior nurse beating a child with learning disability. Ur role
a) Neglect the situation as u r new to the scenario
b) Intervene at the spot, speak directly to the senior in a non-confronting manner, and report to management in writing
c) Inform the ward in-charge after the shift
607. A nurse finds it very difficult to understand the needs of a child with learning disability. She goes to other nurses
and professionals to seek help. How u interpret this action
a) The nurse is short of self confidence
b) A nurse, who is well aware of her limitations seeked help from others. She worked within her competency.
c) She doesn’t have the kind of courage a nurse should have
608. Monica is going to receive blood transfusion. How frequently should we do her observation?
A) Temperature and Pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, and at the end of bag/unit
B) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then after 15 min, then as indicated in local
guidelines, and finally at the end of bag/unit.
C) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood transfusion, then at end of bag.
D) Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag
609. A mentally capable client in a critical condition is supposed to receive blood transfusion. But client strongly refuses
the blood product to be transfused. What would be the best response of the nurse?
a) Accept the client's decision and give information on the consequences of his actions
b) Let the family decide
c) Administer the blood product against the patients decision
d) The doctor will decide
610. Fred is going to receive a blood transfusion. How frequently should we do his observations?
a) Temperature and pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, a nd at the end of bag/unit.
b) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then after 15 minutes, then as indicated
in local guidelines, and finally at the end of the bag/unit.
c) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood transfusion, then at end of bag.
d) Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag.
611. Patient developed elevated temperature and pain in the loin during blood transfusion. This is indicative of:
a) Severe blood transfusion reaction
b) Common blood transfusion reaction
612. Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to
check her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:
a) Renal Colic
b) Urine Infection
c) Common adverse reaction
d) Serious adverse reaction
613. During blood transfusion, a patient develops pyrexia, and loin pain. Rn interprets the situation as
a) Common reaction to transfusion
b) Adverse reaction to blood transfusion
c) Patient has septicaemia
614. What are the steps of the nursing Process?
a) Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating
b) Assessing, planning, implementing, evaluating, documenting
c) Assessing, observing, diagnosing, planning, evaluating
d) Assessing, reacting, implementing, planning, evaluating
615. What is clinical benchmarking?
A. The practice of being humble enough to admit that someone else is better at something and being wise enough to try to learn how
to match and even surpass them at it.
B. A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to attain, best practice and
care C. A system that provides a structured approach for realistic and supportive practice development D. All of the above
616. Where is revision on the nursing process done? During:
a) Diagnosis
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
617. What does intermediate care not consist of?
a) Maximise dependent living
b) Prevent unnecessary acute hospital admission
c) Prevent premature admission to long-term residential care
d) Support timely discharge form hospital
618. A nurse documents vital signs without actually performing the task. Which action should the charge nurse take
after discussing the situation with the nurse?
a) Charge the nurse with malpractice
b) Document the incident
c) Notify the board of nursing
d) Terminate employment
619. The nurse has made an error in documenting client care. Which appropriate action should the nurse take?
a) Draw a line through error, initial, date and document correct information
b) Document a late addendum to the nursing note in the client’s chart
c) Tear the documented note out of the chart
d) Delete the error by using whiteout
620. Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
A. When the patient is medically fit
B. On the admission assessment
C. When transport is available
621. What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
a) It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status.
b) An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of
the patient’s health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare agency.
c) An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for example, continence assessment,
nutritional assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day care, outpatient consultation for
a specific condition.
d) It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and observation of specific problems
identified.
622. When do you plan a discharge?
a) 24 hrs within admission
b) 72 hrs within admission
c) 48 hrs within admission
d) 12 hrs within admission
623. All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical,
emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness; and the effect of the illness on the ability
to meet self-care needs.
B. It embraces all nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to death as it’s goals.
C. An all nursing practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the environment.
624. Nursing process is best illustrated as:
A. Patient with medical diagnosis
B. task oriented care
C. Individualized approach to care
D. All of the above
625. Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
a) An organised, systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving standards in nursing care.
b) It uses a systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient and their family.
c) It is a form of documentation.
d) It requires collection of objective data.
626. Which of the following sets of needs should be included in your service user’s person centred care plan?
a) social, spiritual and academic needs
b) medical, psychological and financial needs
c) physical, medical, social, psychological and spiritual needs
d) a and b only
e) all of the above?
627. A nurse explains to a student that the nursing process is a dynamic process. Which of the following actions by the
nurse best demonstrates this concept during the work shift?
a) Nurse and client agree upon health care goals for the client
b) Nurse reviews the client's history on the medical record
c) Nurse explains to the client the purpose of each administered medication
d) Nurse rapidly reset priorities for client care based on a change in the client's condition
628. The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a client's plan of care: "Client will re-establish a pattern of
daily bowel movements without straining within two months." The nurse would write this statement under which section of
the plan of care?
A) Long-term goals
B) Short-term goals
C) Nursing orders
D) Nursing dianosis/problem list
629. Nursing process is best illustrated as:
a) Patient with medical diagnosis
b) task oriented care
c) Individualized approach to care
d) All of the above
630. In caring for a patient, the nurse should?
a) whenever possible provide care that is culturally sensitive and according to patients preference
b) ask the patient and their family about their culture
c) be aware of the patient’s culture
d) disregard the patient’s culture
631. All individuals providing nursing care must be competent at which of the following procedures?
a) Hand hygiene and aseptic technique
b) Aseptic technique only
c) Hand hygiene, use of protective equipment, and disposal of waste
d) Disposal of waste and use of protective equipment
e) All of the above
632. Nursing care should be
a) Task oriented
b) Caring medical and surgical patient
c) Patient oriented, individualistic care
d) All
633. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?
A. Collect a stool sample
B. Complete an abdominal assessment
C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
D. Notify the physician
634. Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
a) When the patient is medically fit
b) On the admission assessment
c) When transport is available
635. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the "problem" part of nursing diagnosis?
a) Oxygenation saturation 93%
b) Output 500 ml in 8 hours
c) Anxiety
d) Grimacing
636. When do you see problems or potential problems?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
637. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the
client's vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
638. How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not apply:
A. We value every patient, their families or carers, or staff.
B. We respect their aspirations and commitments in life, and seek to understand their priorities, needs, abilities and
limits. C. We find time for patients, their families and carers, as well as those we work with.
D. We are honest and open about our point of view and what we can and cannot do.
639. Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?
A. Client's face is pale
B. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable
C. Nursing assistant reports client refused lunch
D. Client feel nauseated
640. How the nurse assesses the quality of care given
A) reflective process
b) clinical bench marking
c) peer and patient response
d) all the above
641. What are the professional responsibilities of the qualified nurse in medicines management?
a) Making sure that the group of patients that they are caring for receive their medications on time. If they are not competent
to administer intravenous medications, they should ask a competent nursing colleague to do so on their behalf.
b) The safe handling and administration of all medicines to patients in their care. This includes making sure that patients understand
the medicines they are taking, the reason they are taking them and the likely side effects.
c) Making sure they know the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the medications used in their area of clinical practice.
d) To liaise closely with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.
642. Who has the overall responsibility for the safe and appropriate management of controlled drugs within the clinical area?
a) All registered nurses
b) The nurse in charge
c) The consultant
d) All staff
643. What are the key reasons for administering medications to patients?
a) To provide relief from specific symptoms, for example pain, and managing side effects as well as therapeutic purposes.
b) As part of the process of diagnosing their illness, to prevent an illness, disease or side effect, to offer relief from symptoms or to treat
a disease
c) As part of the treatment of long term diseases, for example heart failure, and the prevention of diseases such as asthma.
d) To treat acute illness, for example antibiotic therapy for a chest infection, and side effects such as nausea.
644. You were on your medication rounds and the emergency alarm goes off. What will you do first?
a.) Lock your trolley
b.) Rush to your patient’s bedroom
c.) Check first if everyone had their meds
d.) a and c
645. What are the most common types of medication error?
a) Nurses being interrupted when completing their drug rounds, different drugs being packaged similarly and stored in the same
place and calculation errors.
b) Unsafe handling and poor aseptic technique.
c) Doctors not prescribing correctly and poor communication with the multidisciplinary team.
d) Administration of the wrong drug, in the wrong amount to the wrong patient, via the wrong route
646. Registrants must only supply and administer medicinal products in accordance with one or more of the
following processes, except:
a) Carer specific direction (CSD)
b) Patient medicines administration chart (may be called medicines administration record MAR)
c) Patient group direction (PGD)
d) Medicines Act exemption
647. Independent and supplementary nurse and midwife are those who are?
a) nurse and midwife student who cleared medication administration exam
b) nurses and midwives educated in appropriate medication prescription for certain pharmaceuticals
c) registrants completed a programme to prescribe under community nurse practitioner’s drug formulary
d) nurses and midwives whose name is entered in the register
648. Which of the following people is not exempted from paying a prescribed medication?
a) children under the age of 16
b) women of child bearing age
c) people who are receiving support allowance
d) pensioners of age 65 and above
649. As a RN when you are administering medication, you made an error. Taking health and safety of the patient into
consideration, what is your action?
a) Call the prescriber. Report through yellow card scheme and document it in patient notes
b) Let the next of kin know about this and document it
c) Document this in patient notes and inform the line manager
d) Assess for potential harm to client, inform the line manager and prescriber and document in patient notes
650. You noticed that a colleague committed a medication administration error. Which should be done in this situation?
A. You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.
B. You should inform the doctor.
C. You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform the patient.
651. The nurses on the day shift report that the controlled drug count is incorrect. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager and pharmacy immediately
B. Report the incident to the local board of nursing
C. Inform a doctor
D. Report the incident to the NMC
652. Which of the following is not a part of the 6 rights of medication administration?
A. Right time
B. Right route
C. Right medication
D. Right reason
653. nOne of the following is not true about a delegation responsibility of a medication registrant:
a) Nurses are accountable to ensure that the patient, carer or care assistant is competent to carry out the task.
b) Nurses can delegate medication administration to student nurses / nurses on supervision.
c) Nurses can delegate medication administration to unregistered practitioners to assist in ingestion or application of the
medicinal product.
d) All of the above
654. A patient approached you to give his medications now but you are unable to give the medicine. What is your initial action?
a) Inform the doctor
b) Inform your team leader
c) Inform the pharmacist
d) Routinely document meds not given
655. You were on a night shift in a ward and has been allocated to dispose controlled medications. Which of the following
is correct?
a) Controlled drugs destruction and pharmacy stock check should be done at different times.
b.) Controlled drugs should be destroyed with the use of the Denaturing Kit.
c.) Excessive quantities of controlled drugs can be stored in the cupboard whilst waiting for destruction.
d.) None of the Above
656. General guidance for the storage of controlled drugs should include the following except:
a.) cupboards must be kept locked when not in use
b.) keys must only be available to authorised member of staff
c.) regular drugs can also be stored in the controlled drug storage
d.) the cupboard must be dedicated to the storage of controlled drugs
657. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice
a discrepancy. What would you do?
a) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You
will also complete an incident form.
b) Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.
c) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found the police need to be informed.
d) Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the
missing drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an incident form.
658. You were running a shift and a pack of controlled drugs were delivered by the chemist/pharmacist whilst you were
giving the morning medications. What would you do first?
a) keep the controlled drugs in the trolley first, then store it after you have done morning drugs
b) Count the controlled drugs, store them in controlled drug cabinet and record them on the controlled drug book
c) Count the controlled drugs, store them in the medication trolley and record them on the controlled drug book
d) Record them in the controlled drug book and delegate one of the carers to store them in the controlled drug cabinet
659. In a nursing and residential home setting, how will you manage your time and prioritise patients’ needs whilst doing
your medication rounds in the morning?
a. Start administering medications from the patient nearest to the treatment room.
b. Start administering medications to patients who are in the dining room, as this is where most of them are for breakfast.
c. Check the list of patients and identify the ones who have Diabetes Mellitus and Parkinson’s disease.
d. All of the above.
660. After having done your medication rounds, you have realised that your patient has experienced the adverse effect of the
drug. What will be your initial intervention?
a) You must do the physical observations and notify the General Practitioner.
b) You must ring the General Practitioner and request for a home visit.
c) You must administer medication from the Homely Remedy Pod after having spoken to the General Practitioner.
d) You must observe your patient until the General Practitioner arrives at your nursing home.
661. You are transcribing medications from prescription chart to a discharge letter. Before sending this letter what action must
be taken?
a) A registrant should sign this letter
b) Transcribing is not allowed in any circumstances
c) The letter has to be checked by a nurse in charge
d) Letter can be sent directly to the patient after transcribing
662. A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self-administer the medication, has been assessed for suitability
at Level 2 This means that:
a) The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products and the supervision of the administration process
ensuring the patient understands the medicinal product being administered
b) The patient accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the medicinal products
c) None of the above - The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products. At administration time, the patient
will ask the registrant to open the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer the medication under the supervision of
the registrant
663. What are the potential benefits of self-administration of medicines by patients?
a) Nurses have more time for other aspects of patient care and it therefore re duces length of stay.
b) It gives patients more control and allows them to take the medications on time, as well as giving them the opportunity to address any
concerns with their medication before they are discharged home.
c) Reduces the risk of medication errors, because patients are in charge of their own medication.
d) Creates more space in the treatment room, so there are fewer medication errors
664. The MARS says that Benedict is on TID Macrogol. You have notice that the nurses have been writing “A” for refused.
What do you do?
a.) Write “A” on the MARS, because Benedict is expected to refuse it.
b.) Offer the Macrogol, and write “A” if the patient refuses it.
c.) Check bowel charts and cancel Macrogol on MARS if bowels are fine.
d.) Change the prescription to PRN.
665. A patient is rapidly deteriorating due to drug over dose what to do?
A. Assess ABCDE, call help, keep anaphylactic kit
B. Call for help, keep anaphylactic kit, assess ABCDE
C. Assess ABCDE, keep anaphylactic kit, inform doctor, call for help
666. patient bring own medication to hospital and wants to self-administer what is your role ? allow him
a) give medications back to relatives to take back
b) keep it in locker, use from medication trolley
c) explain to patient about medication before he administer it
667. A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the nurse forgot to administer the morning dose
of furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?
e) Assault
f) Slander
g) Negligence
h) tort
668. As a newly qualified nurse, what would you do if a patient vomits when taking or immediately after taking tablets?
A. Comfort the patient, check to see if they have vomited the tablets, & ask the doctor to prescribe something different as these
obviously don’t agree with the patient
B. Check to see if the patient has vomited the tablets & if so, document this on the prescription chart. If possible, the drugs may be
given again after the administration of antiemetics or when the patient no longer feels nauseous. It may be necessary to discuss an
alternative route of administration with the doctor
C. In the future administer antiemetics prior to administration of all tablets
D. Discuss with pharmacy the availability of medication in a liquid form or hide the tablets in food to take the taste away.
669. A newly admitted client refusing to handover his own medications and this includes controlled drugs. What is your action?
a) You have to take it any way and document it
b) Call the doctor and inform about the situation
c) Document this refusal as these medications are his property and should not do anything without his consent
d) Refuse the admission as this is against the policy
670. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
a) Loop diuretic
b) Hypnotics
c) Betablockers
d) Nsaids
671. Tony is prescribed Lanoxin 500 mcg PO. What vital sign will you asses prior to giving the drug?
a) heart rate and rhythm
b) respiration rate and depth
c) temperature
d) urine output
672. Patient has next dose of Digoxin but has a CR=58
a) Omit dose, record why, and inform the doctor
b) Give dose and tell the doctor
c) Give dose as prescribed
673. Which drug to be avoided by a patient on digoxin?
a) corticosteroid
b) nsaid
674. Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?
a) Allergies
b) Drug interactions
c) Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
d) Medical problems (Thyroid problems, kidney disease, etc.
e) All of the above.
675. Which of these medications is not administer with digoxin?
a) Diuretics
b) Corticosteroids
c) Antibiotics
d) NSAID’s
676. Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?
1. Allergies
2. Drug interactions
3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)
A. 1&2
B. 3&4
C. 1, 3, & 4
D. All of the above
677. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte level of a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following
electrolytes imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
a) Hypocalcemia
b) Hypomagnesemia
c) Hypokalaemia
d) Hyponatremia
678. Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief.
a. Record this in the controlled drug register book with the pharmacist
witnessing b. Put it in the patient’s medicine pod
c. Store it in ward medicine cupboard
d. Ask the pharmacist to give it to the patient
679. You have been asked to give Mrs Patel her mid-day oral metronidazole. You have never met her before. What do you
need to check on the drug chart before you administered?
a) Her name and address, the date of the prescription and dose.
b) Her name, date of birth, the ward, consultant, the dose and route, and that it is due at 12.00.
c) Her name, date of birth, hospital number, if she has any known allergies, the prescription for metronidazole: dose, route, time,
date and that it is signed by the doctor, and when it was last given
d) Her name and address, date of birth, name of ward and consultant, if she has any known allergies specifically to penicillin, that
prescription is for metronidazole: dose, route, time, date and that it is signed by the doctor, and when it was last given and who
gave it so you can check with them how she reacted.
680. You are caring for a Hindu client and it’s time for drug administration; the client refuses to take the capsule referring to
the animal product that might have been used in its making, what is the appropriate action for the nurse to perform?
a) She will not administer and document the ommissions in the patients chart
b) The nurse will ignore the clients request and administer forcebily
c) The nurse will open the capsule and administer the powdered drug
d) The nurse will establish with the pharamacist if the capsule is suitable for vegetarians
681. John, 18 years old is for discharge and will require further dose of oral antibiotics. As his nurse, which of the following will
you advise him to do?
a) Take with food or after meals and ensure to take all antibiotics as prescribed
b) Take all antibiotics and as prescribed
c) Take medicine during the day and ensure to finish the course of medication
d) Take medicine and stop when he feels better
682. When should prescribed antibiotics to be administered to a septicemic patient
a) Immediately after admission
b) After getting blood culture result
c) Immediately following blood drawn for culture
683. You are the named nurse of Colin admitted at Respiratory ward because of chest infection. His also suffers from
Parkinson's syndrome. What medications will you ensure Colin has taken on regular time to control his 'shaking'?
a) Co-careldopa (Sinemet)
b) Co-amoxiclave (augmentin)
c) Co-codamol
d) Co-Q10
684. Your hospital supports the government’s drive on breastfeeding. One of your patient being treated for urinary tract
infection was visited by her husband and their 4 month old baby. She would like to breastfeed her baby. What advise will you
give her?
a. it is ok to breastfeed as long as it is done privately
b. it is ok to breastfeed because the hospital supports this practice c.
refrain from breastfeeding as of now because of her UTI treatment d.
breast milk is the best and she can feed her baby anytime they visit
685. Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid toxicity:
A. Slow and shallow
B. fast and shallow
C. slow and deep
D. Fast and deep
686. What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?
a) Respiratory rate, bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
b) Checking the patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
c) Lung function tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels
d) Daily completion of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency with which the patient reports breakthrough pain
687. What advice do you need to give to a patient taking Allopurinol? (Select x 3 correct answers)
a) Drink 8 to 10 full glasses of fluid every day, unless your doctor tells you otherwise.
b) Store allopurinol at room temperature away from moisture and heat.
c) Avoid being near people who are sick or have infections
d) Skin rash is a common side effect, it will pass after a few days
688. What instructions should you give a client receiving oral Antibiotics?
a) Consume it all at once
b) take the antibiotic with glass of water
c) Take the medication with meals and consume all the antibiotics
d) take the medication as prescribed and complete the course
689. When the doc will prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
A) on admission
B) when septicemia is suspected
C) when the blood culture shows positive growth of organism
690. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit becomes depressed. Which of the
following evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
a) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
b) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current treatment plan.
c) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal behavior.
d) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant
691. Johan, 25 year old, was admitted at Medical Assessment Unit because of urine infection. During your assessment, he
admitted using cannabis under prescription for his migraine and still have some in his bag. What is your best reply to
him about the cannibis?
a) Cannibis is a class C drug under the UK Misuse of Drugs Act 1971.
b) A custodial sentence of 28 days i s now given to anyone in possession 3 times or more
c) Cannabis is a class B drug under the UK Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
d) Possession of cannabis will incur a penalty of 3 months imprisonment with £2 000 fine
692. A patient in your care is on regular oral morphine sulphate. As a qualified nurse, what legal checks do you need to carry
out every time you administer it, which are in addition to those you would check for every other drug you administer?
a) Check to see if the patient has become tolerant to the medication so it is no longer effective as analgesia.
b) Check to see whether the patient has become addicted.
c) Check the stock of oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another registered nurse and record this in the control drug
book; together, check the correct prescription and the identity of the patient.
d) Check the stock of oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another registered nurse and record this in the control drug
book; then ask the patient to prove their identity to you
693. Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during preparation and administration?
a) oral antibiotics
b) glycerine suppositories
c) morphine tablet
d) oxygen
694. A patient was on morphine at hospital. On discharge doctor prescribes fentanyl patches. At home patient should
be observed for which sign of opiate toxicity?
a) Shallow, slow respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
b) Rapid, shallow respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
c) Rapid wheezy respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
695. Manu is in persistent pain and has Oromorph PRN. All your carers are on their rounds, and you are about to administer
this drug. What would you do?
a.) Dispense 10 mL Oromorph and administer immediately to relieve pain
b.) Dispense 10 mL Oromorph and call one of the carers to witness
c.) Call one of the carers to witness dispensing and administering the drug
696. d.) Administer the drug and ask one of the carers to sign the book after their pad rounds
697. Prothrombin time is essential during anticoagulation therapy. In oral anticoagulation therapy which test is essential?
a) Activated Thromboplastin Time - The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is a blood test that is done to investigate bleeding
disorders and to monitor patients taking ananticlotting drug (heparin).
b) International Normalized Ratio - The Prothrombin time (PT) test, standardised as the INR test is most often used to check how
well anticoagulant tablets such as warfarin and phenindione are working
698. Precise indicator of anticoagulation status when on oral anticoagulants
A) Ptt
B) aPTT
C) ct
D) INR
699. You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just undergone an abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. You have administered his
regular analgesia 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain. Your most immediate, most appropriate nursing action?
a) call the doctor
b) assist patient in a comfortable position
c) give another dose
d) look for a heating pad
700. Mild pain after surgery and pain is reduced by taking which medicine
a)paracetamol
b)ibuprofen
c)paracetamol with codeine
d)paracetamol with morphine
701. John is also prescribed some medications for his Gout. Which of the following health teaching will you advise him to do?
a) Increase fluid intake 2 - 3 liters per day
b) Have enough sunshine
c) Avoid paracetamol (first line analgesic)
d) avoid dairy products
702. A patient doesn’t take a tablet which is prescribed by a doc. Nurse should
a) Inform the incident to senior nurse and ward in charge
b) Inform pharmacist
c) Do not inform anybody…routinely chart
703. Oral corticosteriods side effect
a) mood variation
b) edema
704. On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol and codeine?
a) Step 1: Non Opioid Drugs
b) Step 2: Opioids for Mild to Moderate Pain
c) Step 3: Opioids for Moderate to Severe Pain
d) Herbal medicine
705. What could be the reason why you instruct your patient to retain on its original container and discard nitroglycerine
meds after 8 weeks?
A) removing from its darkened container exposes the medicine to the light and its potency will decrease after 8 weeks
B) it will have a greater concentration after 8weeks
706. A sexually active female , who has been taking oral contraceptives develops diarrohea. Best advice
a. Advise her to refrain from sex till next periods
b. Advice to switch to other measures like condoms, as diarrohea may reduce the effect of oral contraceptives
707. A patient is prescribed metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While talking with the patient he states “I never eat
breakfast so I take a ½ tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood sugar to drop.” As his
primary care nurse you:
A. Tell him he has made a good decision and to continue
B. Tell him to take a whole tablet with lunch and with supper
C. Tell him to skip the morning dose and just take the dose at supper
D. Tell him to take one tablet in the morning and one tablet in the evening as ordered
708. A Ibuprofen 200mg tablet has been prescribed. You only have a 400mg coated ibuprofen tablet. What should you do?
A. Give half of the tablet
B. crush the tablet and give half of the amount
C. order the different dose of tablet from pharmacy
D. omit
709. A patient develops shortness breath after administering 3
rd
dose of penicillin. The patient is unwell. Ur response
a) Call for help, ensure anaphylaxis pack is available, assess ABC, dnt leave the patient until medical help comes
b) Assesss ABC, make patient lie flat, reassure and continue observing
710. An antihypertensive medication has been prescribed for a client with HTN. The client tells the clinic nurse that they
would like to take an herbal substance to help lower their BP. The nurse should take which action?
a) Tell the client that herbal substances are not safe & should never be used
b) Teach the client how to take their BP so that it can be monitored closely
c) Encourage the client to discuss the use of an herbal substance with the health care provider
711. Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. Later on in your shift, he complained of abdominal pain and
vomited. He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you give him?
a) Fentanyl buccal patch
b) Ibuprofen enteric coated capsules
c) Paracetamol suppositories
d) Oromorphine
712. Mr Jones has been having Type 6 and 7 stools today. As you are doing his medications, which of the following would
you not omit?
a.) Docusate Sodium 2 Capsules
b.) Lactulose 5 mL
c.) Senna 10 mL
d.) Simvastation 100 mg
713. You are the night nurse in a nursing home. Maxine, 81 years old, has been prescribed with Lorazepam PRN. You
have assessed her to be wandering and talking to staff. When do you administer the Lorazepam?
a.) Immediately due to wandering
b.) As soon as possible so she can go to bed
c.) When you see signs of confusion
d.) When you see signs of agitation
714. Mrs Z has been very chesty the last few days. She has been having difficulty with breathing. You have referred her to
the GP, and requested for a home visit. What would probably be prescribed by the GP?
a.) Stalevo 200
b.) Digoxin 40 mg
c.) Trimethoprim 100 mg
d.) Simvastatin 100 mg
715. Annie is on Cefalexin QID. You were working on a night shift and have noticed that the previous nurse has not signed
for the last two doses. What should you do?
a.) Document the incident and speak to your Manager
b.) Check the rota, find out when he is back and leave a note on the MARS for him to
sign c.) Find out what the whistle blowing policy is about
d.) Ask the qualified nurse to sign it on handover if it is definitely been administered
Alan Smith has a history of Congestive Heart Failure. He has also been complaining of general weakness. After taking
his physical observations, you have noticed that he has pitting oedema on both feet. Which of the following is incorrect?
a.) The Water Pill can be prescribed to manage fluid retention.
b.) Lasix can be prescribed for the pitting oedema.
c.) Furosemide and Digoxin can be combined for patients with CHF.
d.) Furosemide will increase Alan’s blood pressure, and lessen pitting oedema.
716. Maria has ran out of Cavilon Cream. You have noted that her groins are very red and sore. You can see that David has
spare Cavilon tubes after checking the stocks. What will you do?
a.) Borrow a tube from David’s stock as Maria’s groins are red and sore
b.) Use Canesten for now and apply Cavilon once stock has arrived
c.) Request for a repeat prescription from the GP, and have the stock delivered by the chemist
d.) Ring the GP and ask him to see Maria’s groins, then prescribe Cavilon.
717. Cherry has been prescribed with Estradiol tablet to be inserted twice a week at night. You entered her bedroom and
noticed she is fast asleep. What would you do?
a.) Try to gently wake her up and insert her vaginal tablets.
b.) Allow her to get some sleep and try to insert the vaginal tablet on your next turn rounds.
c.) Speak to her and ask her to spread her legs, so you can insert her vaginal tablet.
d.) Document that the tablet cannot be administered at all because the patient has refused.
718. What is the best position in applying eye medications?
a) Sitting position with head tilt to the right
b) Sitting position with head tilt backwards
c) Prone position with head tilt to the left
719. How should eye drops be administered?
A. Pulling on the lower eyelid and administering the eye drops
B. Pulling on the upper eyelid and administering the eye drops
C. Tip the patients head back and administer the eye drops into the cornea
D. Tip the patients head to the side and administer the eye drops into the nasolacrimal system
720. What fluid should ideally be used when irrigating eyes?
A. sterile 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Sterile water
C. Chloramphenicol drops
D. tap water
732. Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?
a) Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1-2 cm above
the eye. If the patient links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
b) ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1-2 minutes
c) If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first
d) Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyper extended or lie down
721. All but one are signs of opioid toxicity:
A. CNS depression (coma)
B. Pupillary miosis
C. Respiratory depression (cyanosis)
D. Tachycardia
722. Jim is to receive his eyedrops after his cataract operation. What is the best position for Jim to assume when instilling
the eyedrops?
a) sitting position, head tilted backwards
b) supine position for comfort
c) standing position to facilitate drainage
d) recovery position
723. What is not a good route for IM injection?
A. upper arm
B. stomach
C. thigh
D. buttocks
724. Who is responsible in disposing sharps?
a) Registered nurse
b) Nurse assistant
c) Whoever used the sharps
d) Whoever collects the garbage
725. What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?
a) Ask for advice from the emergency department, report to occupational health and fill in an incident form.
b) Gently make the wound bleed, place under running water and wash thoroughly with soap and water. Complete an incident form and
inform your manager. Co-operate with any action to test yourself or the patient for infection with a bloodborne virus but do not obtain
blood or consent for testing from the patient yourself; this should be done by someone not involved in the incident.
c) Take blood from patient and self for Hep B screening and take samples and form to Bacteriology. Call your union representative
for support. Make an appointment with your GP for a sickness certificate to take time off until the wound site has healed so you dont
contaminate any other patients.
Wash the wound with soap and water. Cover any wound with a waterproof dressing to prevent entry of any other foreign material
726. You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick
injury. Which of the following interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound to bleed
B. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the wound
D. Dry the wound and over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing
727. UK policy for needle prick injury includes all but one:
A. Encourage the wound to bleed
B. Suck the wound
C. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
D. Don’t scrub the wound while washing it
728. One of your patient has challenged your recent practice of administering a subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin
(LMWH) without disinfecting the injection site. The guidelines for nursing procedures do not recommend this method.
Which of the following response will support your action?
A. “We were taught during our training not to do so as it is not based on evidence.”
B. “Our guidelines, which are based on current evidence, recommends a non-disinfection method of subcutaneous injection.”
C. “I am glad you called my attention. I will disinfect your injection site next time to ensure your safety and peace of mind.”
D. “Disinfecting the site for subcutaneous injection is a thing of the past. We are in an evidence-based practice now.”
729. IV injection need to be reconsidered when,?
A. Medicine is available in tab form
B. Poor alimentary absorption
C. Drug interaction due to GI secretions
730. You have discovered that the last dose of intravenous antibiotic administered to service user was the wrong dose. Which
of the following should you do?
a) Document the event in the service user’s medical record only.
b) File an incident report, and document the event in the service user’s medical record.
c) Document in the service user’s medical record that an incident report was filed.
d) File an incident report, but don’t document the even on the service user’s record, because information about the incident is protected.
731. It is important to read the label on every IV bag because:
a. Different IV solutions are packaged similarly
b. The label contains the expiration date of the IV fluid
c. A and B
d. A only
732. Which is the most dangerous site for intramuscular injection?
a) ventrogluteal
b) deltoid
c) rectus femoris
d) dorsogluteal
733. Which is the best site for giving IM injection on buttocks
a) Upper outer quadrant
b) Upper inner quadrant
c) Lower outer quadrant
d) Lower inner quadrant
734. When administering injection in the buttocks, it should be given:
a) right upper quadrant
b) left upper quadrant
c) right lower quadrant
d) left lower quadrant
735. What is not a good route for IM injection?
a) upper arm
b) stomach
c) thigh
d) buttocks
736. The degree of injection when giving subcutaneous insulin injection on a site where you can grasp 1 inch of tissue?
B) 45degrees
C) 40degrees
D) 25degrees
A nursing assistant would like to know what a patient group directive means. Your best reply will be:
a) they are specific written instructions for the supply and administration of a licensed named medicine
b) can be used by any registered nurse or midwife caring for the patient
c) drugs can be used outside the terms of their licence (“off label”),
d) it is an alternative form of prescribing
737. Which is the first drug to be used in cardiac arrest of any aetiology?
e) Adrenaline
f) Amiodarone
g) Atropine
h) Calcium chloride
738. Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?
a) It is a useful form of medication for patients who refuse to take tablets because they don’t want to comply with treatment
b) It is cost effective because there is less waste as patients forget to take oral medication
c) The intravenous route reduces the risk of infection because the drugs are made in a sterile environment & kept in aseptic conditions
d) The intravenous route provides an immediate therapeutic effect & gives better control of the rate of administration as a more precise
dose can be calculated so treatment can be more reliable
e) more precise dose can be calculated so treatment can be more reliable
739. What is the best nursing action for this insertion site. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling,
pain and warm.
a) start antibiotics
b) re-site cannula
c) call doctor
d) elevate
740. What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids
frequently?
A. Respiratory rate, bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
B. Checking the patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
C. Lung function tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels.
D. Daily completion of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency
with which the patient
reports breakthrough pain.
741. What is the best way to avoid a haematoma forming when undertaking venepuncture?
a) Tap the vein hard which will ‘get the vein up’, especially if the patient has fragile veins. This will avoid bruising afterwards.
b) It is unavoidable and an acceptable consequence of the procedure. This should be explained and documented in the patient's notes.
c) Choosing a soft, bouncy vein that refills when depressed and is easily detected, and advising the patient to keep their arm straight
whilst firm pressure is applied.
d) Apply pressure to the vein early before the needle is removed, then get the patient to bend the arm at a right angle whilst
applying firm pressure
742. A nurse is not trained to do the procedure of IV cannulation , still she tries to do the procedure . You are the colleague
of this nurse. What will be your action?
a) You should tell that nurse to not to do this again
b) You should report the incident to someone in authority
c) You must threaten the nurse, that you will report this to the authority
d) You should ignore her act
743. You have just administered an antibiotic drip to you patient. After few minutes, your patient becomes breathless
and wheezy and looks unwell. What is your best action on this situation?
a) Stop the infusion, call for help, anaphylactic kit in reach, monitor closely
b) continue the infusion and observe further
c) check the vital signs of the patient and call the doctor
d) stop the infusion and prepare a new set of drip
744. What is the most common complication of venepuncture?
a) Nerve injury
b) Arterial puncture
c) Haematoma
d) Fainting
745. A patient with burns is given anesthesia using 50%oxygen and 50%nitrous oxide to reduce pain during dressing. how
long this gas is to be inhaled to be more effective?
A) 30 sec
B) 60sec
C) 1-2min
D) 3-5min
746. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and warm? What VIP score would
you document on his notes?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
747. After iv dose patient develops, rashes, itching, flushed skin
A) septecimia
B) adverse reaction
748. Hypokalemia can occur in which situation?
A) Addissons disease
B) When use spironolactone
C) When use furosemide
749. Dehydration is of particular concern in ill health. If a patient is receiving intravenous (IV) fluid replacement and is having
their fluid balance recorded, which of the following statements is true of someone said to be in a positive fluid balance?
B) The fluid output has exceeded the input.
c) The doctor may consider increasing the IV drip rate.
d) The fluid balance chart can be stopped as positive in this instance means good.
e) The fluid input has exceeded the output.
750. A patient is on Inj. Fentanyl skin patch common side effect of the fentanyl overdose is
a) Fast and deep breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
b) Slow and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
c) Noisy and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
d) Wheeze and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
751. As a registered nurse, you are expected to calculate fluid volume balance of a patient whose input is 2437 ml and output is
750 ml
a) 1887 (Negative Balance)
b) 1197 (Negative Balance)
c) 1887 (Positive Balance)
752. What does the term ‘breakthrough pain’ mean, and what type of prescription would you expect for it?
a) A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription that has no regular
time of administration of analgesia.
b) Pain on movement which is short lived, with a q.d .s. prescription, when necessary.
c) Pain that is intense, unexpected, in a location that differs from that previously assessed, needing a review before a prescription
is written.
d) A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription that has 4
hourly frequency of analgesia if necessary
753. A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What
would you do at this point?
a) Ask her to score her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any relieving measures and what makes it worse, looking for
non verbal clues, so you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.
b) Give her some sedatives so she goes to sleep.
c) Calculate a pain score, suggest that she takes deep breaths, reposition her pillows, return in 5 minutes to gain a comparative pain
score.
d) Give her any analgesia she is due. If she hasn't any, contact the doctor to get some prescribed. Also give her a warm milky drink and
reposition her pillows. Document your action.
754. How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:
A. Controlled drugs should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper evident
container.
B. A person collecting controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security
and the importance of
handing over to an authorized person to obtain a signature.
C. Have valid ID badge
D. None of the above
755. Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. later on in your shift he complained of abdominal pain and
vomited. He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you give him?
a) Fetanyl buccal patch
b) Ibuprofen enteric coated capsule
c) Paracetamol suppositories
d) Oromorphine
756. What do you mean by MRSA?
a) methicillin-resistant staphyloccocusaureu
b) multiple resistant staphylococcus antibiotic
757. Patient is given penicillin. After 12 hrs he develops itching, rash and shortness of breath. what could be the reason?
Speed shock
Allergic reaction
758. Which color card is used to report adverse drug reaction?
a) Green Card
b) Yellow Card
c) White Card
d) Blue Card
759. Which drug can be given via NG tube?
A) Modified release hypertensive drugs
C) Crushing the tablets
D) Lactulose syrup
E) Insulin
760. Which of the following is considered a medication?
a) Whole blood
b) Albumin
c) Blood Clotting Factors
d) Antibodies
761. Pharmocokinetics can be described as:
a) The study of the effects of drugs on the function of living systems
b) The absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs within ghe body: what the body does to drug
c) The studyof mechanism of the action of drugs and other biochemical physiological effects: ‘what the drug does to the body’
d) All of the above
762. The medicine and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible for what?
a) Licensing medicinal products
b) Regulating the manufacture, distribution and importation of medicines
c) Regulating which medicine require a prescription and which can be available without a prescription and under what circumstances
d) All of the above
763. Medication errors account for around a quarter of the incidents that threaten patient safety. In a study published in 2 000
it was found that 10% of all patients admitted to hospital suffer an adverse event (incident. How much of these incidents were
preventable?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 60%
764. You are about to administer Morphine Sulphate to a paediatric patient. The information written on the control drug
book was not clearly written – 15mg or 0.15 mg. What will you do first?
a) Not administer the drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his rounds
b) Administer 0.15 mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a paediatric patient
c) Double check the medication label and the information on the controlled drug book; ring the chemist the verify the dosage
d) Ask a senior staff to read the medication label for you
765. After having done your medication round, you have realised that your patient has experienced the adverse effect of the
drug. What will be your initial intervention?
a) You must do the physical observations and notify the General practitioner
b) You must ring the General Practitioner and request for a home visit
c) You must administer medication from the Homely Remedy Pod after having spoken to the General Practitioner.
d) You must observe your patient until the General Practitioner arrives at your nursing home
766. Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief. Upon receipt of the tablets from the
pharmacist you will:
A.Record this in the controlled drug register book with the pharmacist witnessing
B. Put it in the patient’s medicine pod
C. Store it in ward medicine cupboard
D. Ask the pharmacist to give it to the patient
767. The nurse is admitting a client, on initial assessment the nurse tries to inquire the patient if he has been taking alternative
therapies and OTC drugs but the client becomes angry and refuses to answer saying thenurse is doing so because he
belongs to an ethnic minority group, what is the nurse’s best response?
a) The nurse will stop asking questions as it is upsetting to the patient
b) Wait and give some time for the client to get adjusted to modern ways of hospitalisation
c) The nurse will politely explain to the patient about alternative therapies such as St.Johns Wort which interact with drugs
d) The nurse will assign another nurse to ask questions
768. Mrs X is diabetic and on PEG feed. Her blood sugar has been high during the last 3 days. She is on Nystatin Oral Drops
QID, regular PEG flushes and insulin doses. Her Humulin dose has been increased from 12 iu to 14 iu. The nurse practitioner
has advised you to monitor her BM’s for the next two days. What will be your initial intervention if her BM drops to 2.8 mmol
after 2 morning doses of 14 iu?
a.) Offer her a chocolate bar and a glass of orange juice
b.) Flush glucose syrup through her PEG Tube
c.) Ring the nurse practitioner and ask if the insulin dose can be dropped to 12
iu d.) Contact the General Practitioner and request for a visit
769. Maisie is 86 years old, and has been in the nursing home for 5 years now. She has been complaining of burning
sensation in her chest and sour taste at the back of her throat. What would she most likely to be prescribed with?
a.) Ranitidine
b.) Zantac
c.) Paracetamol
d.) Levothyroxine
e.) a and b
f.) b and
770. A patient needs weighing, as he is due a drug that is calculated on bodyweight. He experiences a lot of pain on
movement so is reluctant to move, particularly stand up. What would you do?
A. Document clearly in the patient’s notes that a weight cannot be obtained
B. Offer the patient pain relief and either use bed scales or a hoist with scales built in
C. Discuss the case with your colleagues and agree to guess his body weight until he agrees to stand and use the chair
scales D. Omit the drugs as it is not safe to give it without this information; inform the doctor and document your actions
771. A nurse is caring for clients in the mental health clinic. A women comes to the clinic complaining of insomnia and
anorexia. The patient tearfully tells the nurse that she was laid off from a job that she had held for 15 years. Which of the
following responses, if made by the nurse, is MOST appropriate?
A. “Did your company give you a severance package?”
B. “Focus on the fact that you have a healthy, happy family.”
C. “Losing a job is common nowadays.”
D. “Tell me what happened.”
772. On physical examination of a 16 year old female patient, you notice partial erosion of her tooth enamel and callus
formation on the posterior aspect of the knuckles of her hand. This is indicative of:
a) Self-induced vomiting and she likely has bulimia nervosa
b) A genetic disorder and her siblings should also be tested
c) Self-mutilation and correlates with anxiety
d) A connective tissue disorder and she should be referred to dermatology
773. An adolescent male being treated for depression arrives with his family at the Adolescent Day Treatment Centre for
an initial therapy meeting with the staff. The nurse explains that one of the goals of the family meeting is to encourage
the adolescent to:
a) Trust the nurse who will solve his problem
b) Learn to live with anxiety and tension
c) Accept responsibility for his actions and choices
d) Use the members of the therapeutic milieu to solve his problems
774. A suicidal Patient is admitted to psychiatric facility for 3 days when suddenly he is showing signs of cheerfulness
and motivation. The nurse should see this as:
a) That treatment and medication is working
b) She has made new friends
c) she has finalize suicide plan
775. When caring for clients with psychiatric diagnoses, the nurse recalls that the purpose of psychiatric diagnoses or
psychiatric labelling to:
a) Identify those individuals in need of more specialized care.
b) Identity those individuals who are at risk for harming others
c) Define the nursing care for individuals with similar diagnoses
d) Enable the client's treatment team to plan appropriate and comprehensive care
776. Which of the following situations on a psychiatric unit are an example of trusting patient nurse relationship?
a) The patient tells the nurse he feels suicidal
b) The nurse offers to contact the doctor if the patient has a headache
c) The nurse gives the patient his daily medications right on schedule
d) The nurse enforces rules strictly on the unit
777. Which of the following situations on a psychiatric unit are an example of a trusting a patient-nurse relationship?
a) The patient tells the nurse that he feels suicidal
b) The nurse offers to contact the doctor if the patient has a headache
c) The nurse gives the patient his daily medication right on schedule
d) The nurse enforce rules strictly on the unit
778. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit becomes depressed. Which of the
following evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
A) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
B) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current treatment plan.
C) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal behavior.
779. A patient with a history of schizophrenia is admitted to the acute psychiatric care unit. He mutters to himself as the nurse
attempts to take a history and yells. “I don’t want to answer any more questions! There are too many voices in this room!”
Which of the following assessment questions should the nurse as NEXT?
a) Are the voices telling you to do things?
b) Do you feel as though you want to harm yourself or anyone else?
c) Who else is talking in this room? It’s just you and me
d) I don’t hear any other voices
780. The wife of a client with PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder) communicate to the nurse that she is having trouble
dealing with her husband's condition at home. Which of the following suggestions made by the nurse is CORRECT?
a) Do not touch or speak to your husband during an active flashback. Wait until it is finished to give him support."
b) Discourage your husband from exercising, as this will worsen his condition
c) Encourage your husband to avoid regular contact with outside family members
d) Keep your cupboards free of high-sugar and high-fat foods
781. On a psychiatric unit, the preferred milieu environment is BEST describe as:
a) Fostering a therapeutic social, cultural, and physical environment.
b) Providing an environment that will support the patient in his or her therapeutic needs
c) Fostering a sense of well-being and independence in the patient
d) Providing an environment that is safe for the patient to express feelings
782. A 17-year old patient who was involved in an orthopaedic accident is observed not eating the meals that she previously
ordered and refuses to take a bath even if she is already in recovery stage. As a nurse what do you think is the best
explanation for her reaction to the accident that happened to her?
a) Supression
b) Undoing
c) Regression
d) Repression
783. After the suicide of her best friend Marry feels a sense of guilt, shame and anger because she had not answered the phone
when her friend called shortly before her death. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when talking about
Mary’s feelings?
a) Marry’s feelings are normal and are a form of perceived loss
b) Marry’s feelings are normal and are a form of situational loss.
c) Marry’s feelings are not normal and are a form of situational loss.
d) Marry's feelings are not normal and are a form of physical loss
784. What is an indication that a suicidal patient has an impending suicide plan:
a) She/he is cheerful and seems to have a happy disposition
b) talk or write about death, dying or suicide
c) threaten to hurt or kill themselves
d) actively look for ways to kill themselves, such as stockpiling tablets
785. Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Increased than in normal people
b) Slightly decreased than in normal people
c) Very low as compared to normal people
d) Risk is same in people with and without mental illness
786. Which of the following cannot be seen in a depressed client?
a) Inactivity
b) Sad facial expression
c) Slow monotonous speech
d) Increased energy
787. A patient with antisocial personality disorder enters the private meeting room of a nurse unit as a nurse is meeting with a
different patient. Which of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
a) I’m sorry, but HIPPA says that you can’t be her. Do you mind leaving?
b) You may sit with us as long as you are quiet
c) I need you to leave us alone
d) Please leave and I will speak with you when I am done
788. A patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about the mental capacity of the patient, what decision should
be made?
a) Call the police
b) Let the patient go
c) Encourage the patient to wait, by telling the need for treatment
789. The nurse restrains a client in a client in a locked room for 3 hours until the client acknowledge wo started a fight in
the group room last evening. The nurse’s behaviour constitutes;
a) False imprisonment
b) Duty of care
c) Standard of care practice
d) Contract of care
790. A client has been voluntary admitted to the hospital. The nurse knows that which of the following statements
is inconsistent with this type of hospitalization
a) The client retains all of his or her rights
b) The client has a right to leave if not a danger to self or others
c) The client can sign a written request for discharge
d) The client cannot be released without medical advice.
791. Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Increased than in normal people
b) Slightly decreased than in normal people
c) Very low as compared to normal people
d) Risk is same in people with and without mental illness
792. A patient got admitted to hospital with a head injury. Within 15 minutes, GCS was assessed and it was found to be 15.
After initial assessment, a nurse should monitor neurological status
a) Every 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
793. You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you have been asked to carry out neurological
observations every 15 minutes. You assess and find that his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to light. You are
no longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?
a) Continue with your neurological assessment, calculate your Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and document clearly.
b) This is a medical emergency. Basic airway, breathing and circulation should be attended to urgently and senior help should
be sought.
c) Refer to the neurology team.
d) Break down the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale as follows: best verbal response V = XX, best motor response M = XX and eye
opening E = XX. Use this when you hand over.
794. A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when reaching down to pick up something they
have dropped. What do you do?
a) Let the patient’s relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint & write an incident report for yourself so you remember the
details in case there are problems in the future
b) Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological observations & ask the patient’s doctor to come & review
them, checking the injury isn’t serious. when this has taken place , write up what happened & any future care in the nursing notes
c) Discuss the incident with the nurse in charge , & contact your union representative in case you get into trouble
d) Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations & report the incident to the nurse in charge who may call
a doctor. Complete an incident form. At an appropriate time , discuss the incident with the patient & if they wish , their relatives
795. Glasgow Coma score (GCS) is made up of 3 component parts and these are:
a) eye opening response/motor response/verbal response
b) eye opening response/verbal response/pupil reaction to light
c) eye opening response/motor response/pupil reaction to light
d) eye opening response/limb power/verbal response
796. You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his consciousness drops and the size of one his pupil
becomes smaller what should you do?
A) Call the doctor
B) Refer to neurology team
C) Continue to monitor patient using GCS and record
D) Consider this as an emergency and prioritize ABC
797. Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability?
a) physiotherapy nurse
b) psychotherapy nurse
c) speech and language therapist
d) neurologic nurse
798. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
a) Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
b) Water or clear liquids should be given.
c) Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
d) Review the patient's ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.
799. The nurse is preparing the move an adult who has right sided paralysis from the bed into a wheel chair. Which statement
best describe action for the nurse to take?
a) Position the wheelchair on the left side of the bed.
b) Keep the head of the bed elevated 10 degrees.
c) Protect the patients left arm with a sling during transfer.
d) Bend at the waist while helping the client into a standing position
800. An adult has experienced a CVA that has resulted in right side weakness. The nurse is preparing to move the patients
right side of the bed so that he may then be turned to his left side. The nurse knows that an important principle when moving
the patient is?
a) To keep the feet close together
b) To bend from waist
c) To move body weight when moving objects
d) A twisting motion will save steps
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